Top 50+ Solved Antibiotics MCQ Questions Answer
Q. All of the following antibiotics bind to the 50S subunit of the ribosome thereby inhibitingproteinsynthesis EXCEPT
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Erythromycin
c. Linezolid
d. Doxycycline
e. Clindamycin
Q. Pharmacokinetics of doxycycline
a. 20% bound by serum proteins
b. 60-70% absorption after oral administration
c. Absorption is impaired by divalent cations, Al3+, and antacids
d. Widely distributed especially into the CSF
e. Is eliminated via renal mechanisms
Q. Which of the following inhibits DNA gyrase?
a. Penicillin
b. Trimethoprim
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Ciprofloxacin
e. Gentamicin
Q. Regarding fluoroquinolones
a. Ciprofloxacin is ineffective in the treatment of gonococcus
b. Norfloxacin and Ciprofloxacin are predominantly faecally excreted
c. Norfloxacin and Ciprofloxacin have long half lives (12 hours)
d. They have poor oral bioavailability
e. May damage growing cartilage in children less than 18 years of age
Q. Vancomycin
a. Is never orally administered as it is poorly absorbed from the GIT
b. Binds to the 30S unit on the ribosome and inhibits protein synthesis
c. 60% of vancomycin is excreted by glomerular filtration
d. Parenteral vancomycin is commonly used for treatment of infections caused by methicillin susceptible staphylococci
e. Adverse reactions to vancomycin are encountered in about 10% of patients
Q. Regarding the “azole” group of antifungals
a. Fluconazole has low water solubility
b. Ketoconazole may be given IV/PO
c. Itraconazole undergoes renal elimination
d. Clotrimazole is the treatment of choice for systemic candidiasis – given orally
e. They work by reduction of ergosterol synthesis by inhibition of fungal cytochrome P450 enzymes
Q. The fluoroquinolones
a. May be administered to patients with severe campylobacter infection
b. Work by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase
c. Have little effect against gram positive organisms
d. Are heavily metabolised in the liver
e. Are safe to give to breast feeding mothers
Q. Clindamycin
a. Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis
b. Is often used for prophylaxis of endocarditis in patients with Valvular disease who are undergoing dental procedures
c. Penetrates through BBB into CSF well
d. Works well against enterococci and gram negative aerobic organisms
e. Is 10% protein bound
Q. Which of the following is a second generation cephalosporin?
a. Ceftazidime
b. Cephalothin
c. Cefotaxime
d. Cefaclor
e. Cephalexin
Q. The cephalosporin with the highest activity against gram positive cocci is
a. Cefaclor
b. Cephalothin
c. Cefuroxime
d. Cefepime
e. Cefotaxime
Q. Regarding the penicillins
a. Penicillin ix excreted into breast milk to levels 3-15% of those present in the serum
b. Absorption of amoxyl is impaired by food
c. Benzathine penicillin is given PO
d. Penicillins are 90% excreted by glomerular filtration
e. Dosage of nafcillin should be adjusted in the presence of renal failure
Q. Rifampicin
a. Inhibits hepatic microsomal enzymes
b. Inhibits DNA synthesis
c. Is bactericidal for mycobacteria
d. Is not appreciably protein bound
e. Is predominantly excreted unchanged in the urine
Q. Regarding resistance to antibiotics
a. Penicillinases cannot inactivate cephalosporins
b. Macrolides can be inactivated by transferases
c. Mutation of aminoglycoside binding site is its main mechanism of resistance
d. Tetracycline resistance is a marker for multidrug resistance
e. Resistance to antibiotics is rarely plasmid encoded
Q. Concerning toxicity of antibiotics
a. Enamel dysplasia is common with aminoglycosides
b. Grey Baby Syndrome occurs with rifampicin use
c. A disulfiram like reaction can occur with macrolides
d. Haemolytic anaemias can occur with sulphonamide use
e. Nephritis is the most common adverse reaction with isoniazid
Q. Which of the following is considered to be bacteriostatic?
a. Penicillin
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Cefoxitin
e. Tobramycin