Top 80+ Solved Neurological MCQ Questions Answer
Q. Which is NOT correct regarding migraines?
a. Prevalence is higher in woman.
b. Most improve during pregnancy
c. It is idiopathic, and usually last less than 72 hrs.
d. Ketorolac has been shown to be superior to chlorpromazine in the management of migraines.
e. Sumatriptan is contraindicated in pregnancy.
Q. Which is NOT true of non-traumatic subarachnoid haemorrhage?
a. Most common in the 40-60 year age group.
b. 70% are due to AV malformations.
c. Female: male = 2:1
d. Smoking increases your risk 3-10 fol
e. 50% of patients die or are permanently disabled from the initial event.
Q. Which is true regarding the presentation of SAH?
a. Up to 20% experience a sentinel bleed.
b. A sixth cranial nerve palsy can represent a growing aneurysm in cavernous sinus.
c. Seizures occur in 50% of patients.
d. Photophobia is often more marked than patients with migraines.
e. Syncope occurs in the minority of patients.
Q. Which is INCORRECT regarding investigation of SAH?
a. Non contrast CT becomes less sensitive with time following bleed.
b. 5-10% of patients with negative CT will have SAH.
c. Presence of xanthochromia is the gold standard for diagnosing SAH on LP.
d. Xanthochromia is present in all patients with SAH at 6 hrs post blee
e. MRI angiography is not reliable enough to use for diagnosis and surgical planning of patients with proven SAH.
Q. Which is INCORRECT regarding treatment and complications of SAH?
a. Nimodipine has only been proven to be of benefit orally in preventing vasospasm.
b. 10-30% of patients will rebleed, with 20% within the first 2 weeks.
c. Vasospasm and delayed neurological deficit peak at day 1 post bleed.
d. Hyponatremia is common due to excessive naturesis.
e. The ECG often shows non-specific changes of widened QRS, prolonged QT and ST and T changes suggestive of ischaemia.
Q. Which is NOT correct regarding temporal arteritis?
a. Majority older than 50 yrs.
b. More common in men.
c. Ischaemic optic neuritis is most feared complication.
d. Up to 50% of patients also have polymyalgia rheumatica.
e. Jaw claudication in the history is highly suggestive of temporal arteritis.
Q. Which is INCORRECT of treatment of TIA’s?
a. Aspirin 150 mg/day reduces risk of subsequent stroke by about 30%.
b. Clopidagrel was shown in the CAPRIE study to have a slight advantage over aspirin in stroke prevention.
c. Anticoagulation of patients with TIA’s secondary to thrombosis has been shown to improve outcome.
d. Carotid endarterectomy will reduce death rate by almost 50% in patients with greater than 80% stenosis.
e. Patients with considerable carotid stenosis (>70%), should be admitted for anticoagulation pending consideration for surgery.
Q. Which is INCORRECT regarding cerebral infarction?
a. 80% are MCA territory.
b. MCA syndrome is usually embolic, and arm is usually more affected than leg.
c. Lacunar infarcts usually have partial or complete recovery over 4-6 weeks.
d. Lateral medullary syndrome can result in ipsilateral UMN 7, 9 & 10 CN palsy and Horner’s syndrome with contralateral spinothalamic loss.
e. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia usually results from anterior cerebral artery occlusion.
Q. Which is not an early sign of cerebral infarction on CT?
a. Loss of cortical grey/white matter distinction.
b. Effacement of cortical sulci
c. Compression of ventricular system
d. Hyper dense clot in MCA.
e. All are possible early signs of infarct.
Q. Which is true of thrombolysis in cerebral infarct?
a. Clear benefit has been shown in at least 2 randomized controlled trials that TPA reduces mortality in CVA.
b. Patients up to 6 hrs post infarct have been shown to benefit from thrombolysis.
c. Larger infarcts tend to have more benefit from thrombolysis.
d. The NINDS trial showed that improvement in patients treated within 3 hrs with thrombolysis.
e. ECASS trial thrombolysed patients within 3 hrs with TPA and showed improvements in all outcomes compared with placebo.
Q. Which feature of vertigo is more likely to make it central rather than peripheral?
a. Fast phase of nystagmus toward lesion.
b. Horizontal or rotational nystagmus present.
c. Severe vertigo associated with vomiting and diaphoresis.
d. Visual fixation improves nystagmus.
e. Hall pike manoeuvre positiv
Q. Which statement regarding peripheral vertigo is incorrect?
a. Labyrinthitis is the most common cause.
b. BPPV is characterized by a latency period of 1-5 secs between provocative head position and onset of nystagmus.
c. Tinnitus and hearing loss are associated with Meniere’s disease.
d. Vestibular neuronitis is typically non recurring.
e. Acoustic neuromas typically cause gradual onset of vertigo.
Q. Which statement regarding central vertigo is incorrect?
a. Cerebellar CVA’s will often present with truncal ataxi
b. Vertebrobasilar insufficiency will produce vertigo lasting typically less than a few mins.
c. Multiple sclerosis can cause vertigo which typically lasts a few mins and is recurring.
d. Vertigo can be associated with migraines either as aura or part of the migraine.
e. Wallenberg syndrome or lateral medullary infarction of brainstem is associated with vertigo and Horner’s syndrome
Q. Which of the following drugs is unlikely to cause seizure in withdrawal/
a. Cocaine
b. Narcotics
c. Benzodiazepines
d. Alcohol
e. Tricyclics